This lesson proves the standard result that ∫0π/2log(sinx)dx=−2πlog2. It is both a worked proof and a result worth remembering, since the same value appears in many exam questions. The whole proof rests on the properties of definite integrals.
Setting up the integral
Let
I=∫0π/2log(sinx)dx.
This is equation (1).
Applying the king property
Use the property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx with a=2π. Replacing x by 2π−x and using sin(2π−x)=cosx gives
I=∫0π/2log(sin(2π−x))dx=∫0π/2log(cosx)dx.
This is equation (2).
Adding the two forms
Adding equations (1) and (2):
2I=∫0π/2(log(sinx)+log(cosx))dx=∫0π/2log(sinxcosx)dx,
using loga+logb=log(ab).
The log 2 trick
To turn sinxcosx into sin2x, add and subtract log2:
2I=∫0π/2log(2sinxcosx)dx−∫0π/2log2dx.
Since 2sinxcosx=sin2x, and the second integral is a constant times the length of the interval,
2I=∫0π/2log(sin2x)dx−log2⋅2π.
Call this equation (3).
Evaluating the remaining integral
Let
I1=∫0π/2log(sin2x)dx.
Substitute 2x=t, so 2dx=dt and dx=21dt. When x=0, t=0; when x=2π, t=π. Therefore
I1=21∫0πlog(sint)dt.
Folding back with symmetry
Apply the property ∫02af(x)dx=2∫0af(x)dx when f(2a−x)=f(x). Here 2a=π, and sin(π−t)=sint, so log(sin(π−t))=log(sint) and the condition holds. Thus
I1=21⋅2∫0π/2log(sint)dt=∫0π/2log(sint)dt=I,
since the variable of integration is just a dummy name.
Solving for I
Put I1=I back into equation (3):
2I=I−2πlog2.
So 2I−I=−2πlog2, which gives
I=−2πlog2.
Key takeaways
- ∫0π/2log(sinx)dx=∫0π/2log(cosx)dx=−2πlog2.
- The king property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx turns sine into cosine and lets you add the two forms.
- Adding and subtracting log2 creates sin2x, and the symmetry property folds the integral back onto itself so you can solve for I directly.